Is Christ's Law Of Marriage And Divorce Universal?

Alex D. Ogden

For years there has been some among God's people who have advocated the theory an unbeliever in an unscriptural marriage could continue in that relationship after becoming a Christian. There are two arguments made in support of this position. First, it is argued God's marriage laws only apply to Christians and thus it is irrelevant how many times they were married prior to baptism. The second argument says that since the blood of Christ, which is contacted in baptism, washes away the sin of adultery you are free to continue in the relationship you were in at the time of baptism. In this article we will focus our attention on the first argument. We will examine the second argument next week.

Following are reasons why I am convinced the Lord's statements in Matt.5:32 and Matt.19:9 apply to the unbeliever and believer alike:

Whosoever

In Matthew 5:32; 19:9 and Mark 10:11 the word "whosoever" is used to identify the person who becomes guilty of adultery when they divorce and remarry without fornication being the cause of the divorce. By "whosoever" is meant "anybody who, whoever." In other words, "anybody who, whoever" puts away and marries another without fornication as the cause of the putting away commits adultery. "Whosoever" is an all inclusive word, including everyone who would do that which is under consideration. Even all inclusive words can be limited by things in their context. In Matt.5:32 and 19:9 the "whosoever" is limited by the exception clause. In other words, the "whosoever" is limited to cover only those who divorce when no fornication is involved. It no longer included everyone who puts away, but only those who put away for causes other than fornication. Jesus showed the universal nature of His comments by the use of the word "whosoever."

Jesus Has ALL Authority

When Jesus died on the cross the Old Law was done away (Col.2:14) and He was finally given "all authority...in heaven and on earth" (Matt.28:18). Prior to His death the Law was of force and He had to submit to it but when He died the way was cleared for Him to be given ALL authority. As we study through the Bible we learn there are three institutions for mankind which are of God. There is the home, or the institution of marriage, which God ordained in Gen.2:24. We also know God ordained the government (Rom.13) as well as the church of our Lord. If Jesus has all the authority He claimed He had, then he has authority over all three of these institutions. If not, why not? We might put this in the form of an argument: 1. Jesus has authority to regulate everything that is of God. 2. Marriage of all men is of God. 3. Therefore, Jesus has authority to regulate the marriages of all men. I believe since Jesus has "all authority .... in heaven and on earth" this includes the marriages of all, believers and unbelievers alike.

Unbelievers Can Sin

In 1 Jn.3:4 John writes, "Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law." Sin is committed when one violates a law of God which applies to us. We can't violate a law which does not apply to us.

If God's laws on divorce and remarriage do not apply to those outside of Christ, then God would not regard unbelievers who divorce and remarry as being guilty of sin. They could have sexual relations with as many as they would desire and yet never become guilty of fornication.

But the fact of the matter is the N.T. shows unbelievers were on occasion guilty of fornication. In 1 Cor.6:9-11 Paul speaks of fornicators, as well as others, who shall not inherit the kingdom of God. He then says, "And such were some of you." Some of them had themselves been guilty of fornication prior to obeying the gospel of Christ. Fornication is a sin (Gal.5:19-21). They were guilty of the sin of fornication prior to becoming a Christian. Since sin is the transgression of the law (1 Jn.3:4), they violated the law. If God's marriage laws don't apply to those yet outside of Christ, then what law did they violate to become guilty of sin?

Also remember John 12:48-50 where Jesus said, "He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my sayings (therefore an unbeliever), hath one that judgeth him: the word that I spake, the: same shall judge him in the last day." Our Lord Himself said the things He taught, part of which dealt with divorce and remarriage, will be used to judge unbelievers in the last day. Does it seem logical unbelievers are going to be judged according to laws which did not apply to them? The law of Christ will be used to judge unbelievers because the law of Christ applies to them.

Conclusion

Other arguments could be made to show God's law on divorce and remarriage applies to all, whether a believer in Christ or not, but these are sufficient to make the point.

Let us learn to be content with the Lord's plan for marriage: one man for one woman for life.